UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper PDF: General Medicine & Paediatrics Paper-I

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper PDF: संघ लोक सेवा आयोग (UPSC) की Combined Medical Services Examination (CMS) 2026 के Paper-I का Question Paper उपलब्ध है। Paper-I का विषय General Medicine and Pediatrics है। उम्मीदवार नीचे दिए गए लिंक से इसका Official Question Paper PDF देख और डाउनलोड कर सकते हैं।

इस प्रश्नपत्र में कुल 120 प्रश्न हैं और पेपर के लिए 2 घंटे का समय दिया गया है। अधिकतम अंक 250 हैं।

UPSC CMS 2026 Paper-I: Important Details

प्रश्नपत्र में प्रत्येक प्रश्न के लिए चार विकल्प दिए गए हैं और उम्मीदवार को केवल एक उत्तर चुनना है। सभी प्रश्न समान अंक के हैं। गलत उत्तर देने पर उस प्रश्न के निर्धारित अंकों का एक-तिहाई (1/3) अंक काटा जाता है, जबकि प्रश्न खाली छोड़ने पर कोई penalty नहीं है।

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper PDF Download

उम्मीदवार General Medicine and Pediatrics Paper-I का Official Question Paper नीचे दिए गए लिंक से डाउनलोड कर सकते हैं।

👉 Download UPSC CMS 2026 Paper-I Official Question Paper PDF

यह PDF UPSC की official website पर उपलब्ध है।

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper with Answers & Solutions – Part 1

Q1. A 35-year-old man presented with serial blood pressure recordings of above 140/90 mmHg. Which one of the following signs is not a clue for an underlying cause of hypertension (secondary hypertension)?

A) Radio-femoral delay
B) Enlarged kidneys
C) Bull neck and buffalo hump
D) Vitiligo

Correct Answer: D) Vitiligo

Explanation: Radio-femoral delay can indicate coarctation of the aorta, enlarged kidneys may suggest renal disease, and bull neck with buffalo hump is associated with Cushing syndrome. Vitiligo is not a typical clinical clue for secondary hypertension.

Q2. A 71-year-old male presents with headache, dizziness, nausea with palpitations. He is already on treatment for diabetes and hypertension. His blood pressure is 220/140 mmHg. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This is a case of hypertensive emergency which can be managed by intravenous sodium nitroprusside.
2. An immediate normalization of the blood pressure should be the target.
3. Secondary causes of hypertension like renovascular disease are uncommon in patients with hypertensive emergency.

A) 1 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A) 1 only

Explanation: A very high BP accompanied by symptoms suggestive of acute target-organ involvement is consistent with a hypertensive emergency. IV antihypertensive therapy may be required. However, blood pressure should not be normalized immediately, as an excessive and rapid fall can compromise organ perfusion. Statement 3 is also not correct.

Q3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.

List I – Drug used in heart failure

A. Metoprolol
B. Telmisartan
C. Enalapril
D. Eplerenone

List II – Mechanism of action

1. Aldosterone antagonist
2. Angiotensin receptor blocker
3. ACE inhibitor
4. Beta-blocker

A) 4, 3, 2, 1
B) 4, 2, 3, 1
C) 1, 3, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: B) 4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation:

• Metoprolol → Beta-blocker (4)
• Telmisartan → Angiotensin receptor blocker (2)
• Enalapril → ACE inhibitor (3)
• Eplerenone → Aldosterone antagonist (1)

Therefore, the correct sequence is 4, 2, 3, 1.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Takotsubo cardiomyopathy:

1. There is acute right ventricular dysfunction characterized by dilatation of the right ventricular apex.
2. It can be precipitated by acute emotional stress and is frequently associated with an underlying neuro-psychiatric disorder.
3. Symptoms and ECG findings often mimic acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
4. Ventriculography shows normal left ventricle and apical ballooning of the right ventricle.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3

Explanation: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with emotional or physical stress and can clinically and electrocardiographically mimic acute myocardial infarction. The characteristic abnormality is left ventricular apical ballooning, not right ventricular apical ballooning. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q5. With regard to Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy, match List I with List II.

List I – Mutation

A. Beta-myosin heavy chain mutations
B. Troponin mutations
C. Myosin-binding protein-C mutations

List II – Phenotype

1. Marked ventricular hypertrophy
2. Hypertension and arrhythmia
3. Myocardial fibre disarray with minimal hypertrophy

A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 2
C) 2, 1, 3
D) 3, 2, 1

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2, 3

Explanation: The question asks for the genotype–phenotype matching given in the paper. The corresponding sequence is A-1, B-2 and C-3, giving 1, 2, 3.

Q6. ‘Tumour Plop’ is a characteristic auscultatory finding seen in which one of the following conditions?

A) Atrial myxoma
B) Arrhythmogenic ventricular cardiomyopathy
C) Constrictive pericarditis
D) Dilated cardiomyopathy

Correct Answer: A) Atrial myxoma

Explanation: A tumour plop is a characteristic low-pitched sound associated with an atrial myxoma, particularly when the tumour interferes with atrioventricular valve flow.

Q7. Retinal ischaemia, flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton-wool exudates are fundoscopy findings in which grade(s) of hypertensive retinopathy?

1. Grade 1
2. Grade 2
3. Grade 3
4. Grade 4

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

⚠️ Note: The extracted text of the uploaded paper does not preserve the complete visual/formatting context needed to determine the intended answer code with certainty. The findings classically correspond to Grade 3 hypertensive retinopathy, but I am not assigning a paper-option answer here without verifying the original page.

Q8. Aschoff Nodules are a pathognomonic cardiac finding in which one of the following conditions?

A) Rheumatic carditis
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Takayasu’s arteritis

Correct Answer: A) Rheumatic carditis

Explanation: Aschoff bodies/nodules are characteristic inflammatory lesions of rheumatic fever and are an important pathological finding in rheumatic carditis.

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Eisenmenger Syndrome:

1. In patients with severe and prolonged pulmonary hypertension, the right-to-left shunt gets reversed to a left-to-right shunt.
2. There is marked cyanosis, which may be more apparent in the feet and toes than in the upper part of the body.
3. Antihypertensives which cause peripheral vasodilatation can exacerbate the shunting and worsen the symptoms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D) 2 and 3

Explanation: In Eisenmenger syndrome, a longstanding left-to-right shunt eventually causes severe pulmonary hypertension and reverses to a right-to-left shunt, so statement 1 is incorrect. Cyanosis can be prominent, particularly in the lower limbs in certain shunts. Peripheral vasodilation can worsen right-to-left shunting. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the murmur of Patent Ductus Arteriosus:

1. It is a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur.
2. There is a late diastolic accentuation.
3. It is maximal in the second left intercostal space below the clavicle.
4. With the development of Eisenmenger Syndrome, the murmur becomes louder and rumbling in character.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1 and 3

Explanation: PDA classically produces a continuous machinery murmur, best heard in the left upper sternal/second intercostal area. With severe pulmonary hypertension and Eisenmenger physiology, the murmur may become softer or disappear rather than becoming louder and rumbling.

Q11. A patient presented with pain on the left side of the chest. On examination, there was dullness on percussion on left infra-axillary area. X-ray Chest showed left opaque hemithorax. Which one of the following is an indication for tube thoracentesis in this case?

A) Presence of straw-coloured fluid
B) Pleural fluid pH > 7.2
C) Pleural fluid glucose < 60 mg/dL
D) Pleural fluid LDH < 600 IU/L

Correct Answer: C) Pleural fluid glucose < 60 mg/dL

Explanation: A low pleural-fluid glucose level can be an indication for drainage in an appropriate clinical setting, particularly when associated with complicated parapneumonic effusion/empyema. Among the options given in the paper, glucose <60 mg/dL is the relevant finding.

Q12. A patient with a history of smoking presents to the emergency with breathlessness for the last two days. On examination, he was found to be cyanosed and had bilateral rhonchi. ABG shows:

• pH: 7.12
• PaCO₂: 80 mmHg
• PaO₂: 46 mmHg
• HCO₃⁻: 29 mEq/L

Based on the history, clinical examination and ABG finding, the most likely diagnosis is:

A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Pneumonia
C) COPD exacerbation
D) Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct Answer: C) COPD exacerbation

Explanation: The patient has severe hypercapnia (PaCO₂ 80 mmHg), hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis in the setting of smoking history and bilateral rhonchi. This pattern is consistent with an acute exacerbation of COPD with respiratory failure.

Q13. A patient with a history of chronic smoking presented with breathlessness for the last one year. On examination, there were bilateral rhonchi in the chest. Chest X-ray was suggestive of hyper-inflated lung field. Which of the following parameters of pulmonary function test are consistent with COPD?

1. Decreased FEV1
2. Increased diffusion capacity
3. Increased residual volume
4. Decreased peak expiratory flow rate

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 3 and 4
C) 2, 3 and 4
D) 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: COPD is an obstructive lung disease. It is associated with decreased FEV1, increased residual volume due to air trapping and decreased peak expiratory flow rate. Diffusion capacity is not generally increased. Therefore, statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Q14. Omalizumab is helpful in which of the following diseases?

1. Asthma
2. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
3. Nasal polyposis

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Omalizumab is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody used in selected patients with allergic asthma and is also used for chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps. It is not a standard treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. Therefore, 1 and 3 are correct.

Q15. A 50-year-old male working in a stone industry presents with breathlessness and cough. CT Chest shows calcified mediastinal lymph nodes and pulmonary nodules. He is diagnosed with silicosis. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Silicosis typically involves lower lobes of the lung.
2. The patient is at a higher risk of developing pulmonary tuberculosis.
3. Pulmonary fibrosis after occupational exposure to silica is dose-dependent.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: D) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Silicosis classically has a predominant upper-lobe distribution, so statement 1 is incorrect. Silica exposure increases the risk of pulmonary tuberculosis, and the severity of disease is related to the intensity/duration of exposure. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q16. A 70-year-old male, with a history of smoking presents with progressive dyspnea and dry cough. Examination reveals clubbing and fine basal crackles. Spirometry shows low FVC and low DLCO. CT Chest shows extensive bilateral reticular shadows and subpleural honeycombing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B) Sarcoidosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Bronchiectasis

Correct Answer: A) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Explanation: Progressive breathlessness, dry cough, clubbing, basal crackles, restrictive physiology with reduced FVC and DLCO, and subpleural honeycombing on CT are classic features of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF).

Q17. A 40-year-old obese bank accountant presents with excessive daytime sleepiness and fatigue. His spouse reports loud snoring and early morning tiredness. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive sleep apnea.
2. The diagnosis requires CT/MRI of the neck.
3. Treatment of choice is Zolpidem.

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 and 3

Correct Answer: A) 1 only

Explanation: Obesity, loud snoring and excessive daytime sleepiness strongly suggest obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). CT/MRI of the neck is not routinely required to establish the diagnosis, and zolpidem is not the treatment of choice for OSA. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Q18. A 34-year-old medical student has fever, chest pain, severe breathlessness and dry cough. Chest X-ray shows right homogeneous opacity. Ultrasound lung confirms massive pleural effusion on the right side. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. A therapeutic pleural tap should be done to relieve dyspnoea and sent for analysis.
2. If pleural fluid analysis is inconclusive, a thoracoscopy may be done.
3. Thoracoscopy should be done under general anesthesia.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: In a patient with a massive pleural effusion causing severe breathlessness, therapeutic thoracentesis can provide symptomatic relief and the fluid should be sent for analysis. If the diagnosis remains unclear after pleural-fluid evaluation, thoracoscopy can be considered. The statement that thoracoscopy must be performed under general anesthesia is not universally correct, as the approach depends on the procedure and clinical setting.

Q19. A 42-year-old male with chronic kidney disease undergoing chronic dialysis presents with worsening breathlessness. Examination reveals muffled heart sounds. Chest X-ray image is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Pneumothorax
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pericardial effusion
D) Pulmonary embolism

⚠️ Answer इस extracted file से verify नहीं किया जा सकता, क्योंकि question में जिस Chest X-ray image का reference है, वह उपलब्ध text extraction में दिखाई नहीं दे रही है। इसलिए इसे बिना image देखे answer देना सही नहीं होगा।

Q20. A 22-year-old male presents with left-sided chest pain and breathlessness after a road traffic accident. Examination reveals absent left-sided breath sounds. CT Chest image is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

A) Pneumothorax
B) Pleural effusion
C) Lung cavity
D) Bowel loops herniation

⚠️ Answer को original CT image देखकर ही verify करना चाहिए। Extracted text में image उपलब्ध नहीं है, इसलिए यहाँ guess नहीं किया जा रहा है।

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper with Answers & Solutions – Part 2

Q21. Infiltration of the small-intestine mucosa with foamy macrophages, which stain positive with Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) reagent, is a characteristic feature of which one of the following conditions?

A) Radiation enteropathy
B) Coeliac disease
C) Tropical sprue
D) Whipple’s disease

Correct Answer: D) Whipple’s disease

Explanation: Whipple’s disease is caused by Tropheryma whipplei. A characteristic pathological finding is the presence of PAS-positive foamy macrophages in the small-intestinal mucosa.

Q22. Which one of the following is not a risk factor for the acquisition of chronic hepatitis C?

A) Intravenous drug abuse
B) Unscreened infected blood transfusion
C) Vertical transmission
D) Sharing food

Correct Answer: D) Sharing food

Explanation: Hepatitis C is primarily transmitted through blood and infected body fluids, with important risks including intravenous drug use, contaminated blood transfusion and, less commonly, vertical transmission. Sharing food is not a route of HCV transmission.

Q23. Which one of the following is a predictor of liver fibrosis?

A) Serum transaminase levels
B) AST-to-Platelet Ratio Index
C) Coagulation profile
D) Serum albumin and pre-albumin

Correct Answer: B) AST-to-Platelet Ratio Index

Explanation: APRI (AST-to-Platelet Ratio Index) is a non-invasive scoring system used to assess the likelihood and severity of liver fibrosis, particularly in chronic liver disease.

Q24. A 30-year-old female with irritable bowel syndrome presents with predominant symptom of diarrhea. Which of the following will be helpful in her treatment?

1. Loperamide
2. Lactulose
3. Lubiprostone
4. Sorbitol

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 only
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1 only

Explanation: In diarrhea-predominant IBS (IBS-D), loperamide can be used for symptomatic control of diarrhea. Lactulose and sorbitol can worsen diarrhea, while lubiprostone is mainly used for constipation-predominant IBS.

Q25. ‘Melanosis coli’ (brownish discoloration of colonic mucosa) can occur due to the long-term consumption of which one of the following?

A) Stimulant laxatives
B) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) 3rd generation cephalosporins

Correct Answer: A) Stimulant laxatives

Explanation: Melanosis coli is associated with prolonged use of anthraquinone-containing stimulant laxatives. It results from deposition of lipofuscin pigment in colonic macrophages.

Q26. Patients suffering from which of the following condition(s) can get symptomatic relief by consuming a gluten-free diet?

1. Coeliac disease
2. Peptic ulcer disease
3. Dermatitis herpetiformis

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: A gluten-free diet is the main treatment for coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is strongly associated with coeliac disease and also improves with a gluten-free diet. A gluten-free diet is not a standard treatment for peptic ulcer disease.

Q27. The ’13C-urea breath test’ and the ‘faecal antigen test’ are non-invasive techniques to diagnose infection with which one of the following?

A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Leishmania donovani
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Helicobacter pylori

Correct Answer: D) Helicobacter pylori

Explanation: Both the 13C-urea breath test and H. pylori stool antigen test are non-invasive methods for detecting Helicobacter pylori infection.

Q28. Consider the following statements regarding Ménétrier’s disease:

1. There is excessive production of Transforming Growth Factor-alpha (TGF-α).
2. Majority of the patients present with features of protein-losing enteropathy.
3. Mucus secreting cells are replaced by parietal and chief cells.
4. The mucosal folds of the body and fundus of the stomach are greatly enlarged.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Ménétrier’s disease is characterized by foveolar/mucous cell hyperplasia, enlarged gastric folds and protein-losing gastropathy. Increased TGF-α activity is also associated with the disease. Statement 3 is incorrect because the characteristic change is not replacement of mucus-secreting cells by parietal and chief cells.

Q29. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Barrett’s Oesophagus’:

1. It is a pre-malignant condition.
2. The normal columnar mucosa of lower oesophagus is replaced by squamous cells.
3. It is an adaptive response to chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Barrett’s oesophagus is a premalignant condition associated with chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux. The normal squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus undergoes metaplasia to specialized columnar epithelium. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Q30. The presence of which of the following is suggestive of metastatic spread of an underlying gastrointestinal malignancy?

1. Krukenberg Tumour
2. Virchow’s Node
3. Meigs’ Syndrome
4. Sister Mary Joseph’s Nodule

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Krukenberg tumour, Virchow’s node and Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule are important signs associated with metastatic gastrointestinal malignancy. Meigs’ syndrome is not a marker of GI malignancy metastasis.

Q31. Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate and patiromer are commonly prescribed to chronic kidney disease patients because of their property of binding to which one of the following electrolytes?

A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Phosphate

Correct Answer: C) Potassium

Explanation: Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate and patiromer are potassium-binding agents used to treat or control hyperkalaemia, including in patients with chronic kidney disease.

Q32. Calcium resonium, which is used to treat hyperkalaemia over a short-term in chronic kidney disease, is associated with the development of which one of the following conditions?

A) Prostatomegaly
B) Myocarditis
C) Renal Artery Stenosis
D) Bowel Necrosis

Correct Answer: D) Bowel Necrosis

Explanation: Calcium resonium (calcium polystyrene sulfonate) is an ion-exchange resin used for hyperkalaemia. Gastrointestinal complications, including intestinal necrosis, have been reported, particularly in susceptible patients.

Q33. In multiple myeloma, monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains combine with Tamm-Horsfall protein and precipitate in the renal tubules, which leads to the development of which one of the following conditions?

A) IgA Nephropathy
B) Cast Nephropathy
C) Membranous Glomerulonephritis
D) Interstitial Nephritis

Correct Answer: B) Cast Nephropathy

Explanation: In multiple myeloma, excess monoclonal free light chains combine with Tamm-Horsfall protein in the distal nephron and form obstructing casts. This produces myeloma cast nephropathy, an important cause of acute kidney injury in multiple myeloma.

Q34. Multiple myeloma can cause proximal tubular injury due to light chain deposition in the tubular epithelium causing acquired Fanconi Syndrome. Which of the following are characteristic findings in this condition?

1. Little/no proteinuria
2. Aminoaciduria
3. Phosphaturia
4. Glycosuria

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: D) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Acquired Fanconi syndrome involves generalized dysfunction of the proximal renal tubule. Important findings include aminoaciduria, phosphaturia and glycosuria. Protein loss can also occur due to tubular dysfunction, so the statement of little/no proteinuria is not the characteristic finding being tested here.

Q35. Which one of the following hereditary tubulo-interstitial kidney diseases shows Autosomal Recessive pattern of inheritance?

A) Nephronophthisis
B) Juvenile hyperuricaemic nephropathy
C) Medullary cystic kidney disease type 1
D) Medullary cystic kidney disease type 2

Correct Answer: A) Nephronophthisis

Explanation: Nephronophthisis is classically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner and is an important inherited tubulointerstitial kidney disease of childhood.

Q36. Which one of the following is a contraindication of Renal Biopsy?

A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Acute renal injury of uncertain etiology
C) Uncontrolled hypertension
D) Renal transplant dysfunction

Correct Answer: C) Uncontrolled hypertension

Explanation: Uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of serious bleeding following a renal biopsy and is therefore an important contraindication until blood pressure is adequately controlled.

Q37. Anti-PLA2R antibodies, which are directed against the ‘M-type phospholipase A2 receptor’, are a key biomarker for which one of the following conditions?

A) Primary membranous nephropathy
B) IgA Nephropathy
C) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
D) Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis

Correct Answer: A) Primary membranous nephropathy

Explanation: Anti-PLA2R antibodies are strongly associated with primary membranous nephropathy and are useful in its diagnosis and monitoring.

Q38. Which one of the following stages of chronic kidney disease corresponds to a glomerular filtration rate of 55 mL/min/1.73 m²?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3A
D) 3B

Correct Answer: C) 3A

Explanation: A GFR of 45–59 mL/min/1.73 m² corresponds to CKD stage G3a. Therefore, 55 mL/min/1.73 m² falls under stage 3A.

Q39. Which one of the following hereditary neuropathies is characterized by elevated serum ‘phytanic acid’ levels and manifests with the tetrad of peripheral neuropathy, retinitis pigmentosa, cerebellar ataxia and elevated protein concentration in cerebrospinal fluid?

A) Krabbe’s disease
B) Fabry’s disease
C) Tangier disease
D) Refsum’s disease

Correct Answer: D) Refsum’s disease

Explanation: Refsum disease is a hereditary disorder of phytanic acid metabolism. Elevated phytanic acid is associated with peripheral neuropathy, retinitis pigmentosa and cerebellar ataxia; elevated CSF protein can also occur.

Q40. Which one of the following is true regarding asymmetrical motor diabetic neuropathy?

A) Weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of lower limbs
B) Painless wasting of muscles
C) Hyper-exaggerated reflexes in the affected limb
D) Glucocorticoids are the treatment of choice

Correct Answer: A) Weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of lower limbs

Explanation: Asymmetrical motor diabetic neuropathy, also called diabetic amyotrophy, typically presents with painful or sometimes initially painful proximal weakness and wasting, particularly involving the thighs and hip muscles. The condition is not characterized by hyperactive reflexes, and glucocorticoids are not the standard treatment of choice.

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper with Answers & Solutions – Part 3

Q41. Which of the following are the clinical features of Multiple Sclerosis?

1. Loss or blurring of vision
2. Tingling in limbs on neck flexion
3. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
4. Gait ataxia

A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Multiple sclerosis can present with visual disturbances, sensory symptoms including Lhermitte’s phenomenon (tingling on neck flexion) and gait ataxia. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are not a typical presenting clinical feature.

Q42. A 42-year-old labourer developed a sudden, severe and persistent headache, accompanied by vomiting and neck pain. Emergency CT was negative for stroke. Which one of the following investigations is best to confirm the diagnosis?

A) Electroencephalogram
B) Carotid Doppler
C) Lumbar puncture after 12 hours
D) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

Correct Answer: C) Lumbar puncture after 12 hours

Explanation: Sudden severe headache with vomiting and neck pain suggests subarachnoid haemorrhage. If the initial CT scan is negative but clinical suspicion remains high, lumbar puncture can help detect blood/xanthochromia in the CSF.

Q43. Consider the following pairs with respect to muscle channelopathies:

1. Sodium — Paramyotonia congenita / Malignant hyperthermia
2. Calcium
3. Ryanodine receptor — Becker disease
4. Chloride — Thomsen disease

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

⚠️ Note: इस question का text extraction PDF में mix/garbled है—विशेषकर Pair 2 और Pair 3 के बीच disease names की positioning साफ नहीं है। इसलिए इस version से answer assign नहीं कर रहा हूँ।

Q44. A 47-year-old man with a large frontoparietal lesion in the right hemisphere was asked to circle all the A’s. Only targets on the right were circled. This is a manifestation of:

A) Left hemispatial neglect
B) Simultanagnosia
C) Constructional apraxia
D) Alien hand syndrome

Correct Answer: A) Left hemispatial neglect

Explanation: A right cerebral hemisphere lesion can produce contralateral neglect, causing the patient to ignore stimuli on the left side. Here, only the targets on the right were identified, indicating left hemispatial neglect.

Q45. A 40-year-old man was found to have weakness of the right shoulder and arm 6 hours before presentation. This was followed by weakness of the ipsilateral leg, then left leg, followed by left arm (around-the-clock pattern). Where in the neuraxis is the lesion likely to be present?

A) Cerebral cortex
B) Foramen magnum
C) Midbrain
D) Pons

Correct Answer: B) Foramen magnum

Explanation: The around-the-clock progression of weakness involving the limbs in sequence is characteristic of a lesion at the foramen magnum/cervicomedullary region, where progressive compression can affect the long tracts in a characteristic pattern.

Q46. Which one of the following refers to agraphesthesia?

A) Inability to identify common objects by palpation recognising their shape, texture and size
B) Inability to recognize with eyes closed, letters or numbers drawn by the examiner’s fingertip on the palm of the hand
C) Inability to discriminate two points set 3 mm apart on fingertips
D) Inability to stand and walk with both the eyes closed

Correct Answer: B) Inability to recognize letters or numbers drawn on the palm

Explanation: Agraphesthesia is the inability to recognize a number or letter traced on the skin, usually tested on the palm with the patient’s eyes closed.

Q47. Which one of the following is a type of Mitochondrial myopathy?

A) Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres
B) Familial focal epilepsy with variable foci
C) Sleep related hypermotor epilepsy
D) Severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy

Correct Answer: A) Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres

Explanation: MERRF (Myoclonic Epilepsy with Ragged-Red Fibres) is a mitochondrial disorder characterized by myoclonic epilepsy and mitochondrial myopathy with ragged-red fibres.

Q48. Which one of the following is a childhood-onset epilepsy syndrome characterized by multiple seizure types, developmental delay and slow (<3 Hz) spike-and-wave discharges on EEG?

A) Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy Syndrome
B) Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
C) Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy Syndrome
D) Rasmussen Syndrome

Correct Answer: B) Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

Explanation: Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is a severe childhood epilepsy syndrome characterized by multiple seizure types, developmental impairment and characteristic slow <3 Hz spike-and-wave EEG patterns.

Q49. With regard to the treatment of phaeochromocytoma, beta-blocker should never be given before alpha-blocker because it may cause:

A) Paradoxical rise in blood pressure due to unopposed alpha-mediated vasoconstriction
B) Paradoxical fall in blood pressure due to unopposed alpha-mediated vasoconstriction
C) Paradoxical rise in blood pressure due to unopposed alpha-mediated vasodilatation
D) Paradoxical fall in blood pressure due to unopposed alpha-mediated vasodilatation

Correct Answer: A) Paradoxical rise in blood pressure due to unopposed alpha-mediated vasoconstriction

Explanation: In phaeochromocytoma, giving a beta-blocker before adequate alpha-blockade removes beta-2-mediated vasodilation while alpha-mediated vasoconstriction remains unopposed. This can cause a dangerous rise in blood pressure.

Q50. Which of the following may be seen during clinical examination in a patient of Diabetes mellitus?

1. Necrobiosis lipoidica
2. Charcot neuroarthropathy
3. Exudative maculopathy
4. Acanthosis nigricans

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four can be associated with diabetes mellitus. Necrobiosis lipoidica is a characteristic skin association, Charcot neuroarthropathy results from diabetic neuropathy, diabetic retinopathy can cause exudative maculopathy, and acanthosis nigricans is associated with insulin resistance.

Q51. Consider the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) and gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP):

1. GLP-1 is an incretin hormone.
2. GIP is an incretin hormone.
3. GLP-1 is released from gastrointestinal ‘L-cells’.
4. GIP is released from gastrointestinal ‘M-cells’.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Both GLP-1 and GIP are incretin hormones. GLP-1 is produced by intestinal L-cells, while GIP is produced by K-cells, not M-cells. Therefore, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Q52. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Factitious Thyrotoxicosis’:

1. Induced when patients consume excessive amounts of levothyroxine.
2. Exogenous levothyroxine suppresses secretion of pituitary TSH.
3. Serum thyroglobulin level is elevated.
4. T4:T3 ratio is high.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Factitious thyrotoxicosis occurs due to ingestion of exogenous thyroid hormone, such as levothyroxine. It suppresses TSH and typically produces a low serum thyroglobulin level. Since levothyroxine is predominantly T4, the T4:T3 ratio is high. Therefore, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Q53. Deficiency of which of the following mineral(s) can lead to hypocalcemia by impairing the ability of the parathyroid gland to secrete parathyroid hormone?

1. Phosphate
2. Magnesium
3. Sodium
4. Potassium

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 only
C) 3 and 4
D) 3 only

Correct Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation: Magnesium deficiency can impair PTH secretion and produce resistance to PTH action, leading to hypocalcemia. Therefore, among the given minerals, magnesium is the correct answer.

Q54. Which of the following are long-acting insulin analogues?

1. Lispro
2. Glargine
3. Detemir
4. Degludec

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: D) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Insulin glargine, detemir and degludec are long-acting insulin analogues. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analogue. Therefore, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Q55. Liquorice misuse, by inhibiting 11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2 enzyme, can cause a condition which resembles the clinical features of:

A) Gonadotropin excess
B) Thyrotropin excess
C) Mineralocorticoid excess
D) Parathyroid hormone excess

Correct Answer: C) Mineralocorticoid excess

Explanation: Liquorice inhibits 11β-HSD2, allowing cortisol to activate mineralocorticoid receptors. This produces a syndrome resembling mineralocorticoid excess, with hypertension and hypokalaemia.

Q56. Which one of the following levels of hypoglycaemia corresponds to a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL leading to cognitive impairment and need for corrective treatment?

A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3

Correct Answer: C) Level 2

Explanation: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL falls into Level 2 hypoglycaemia, which is a clinically significant hypoglycaemic level requiring prompt corrective action.

Q57. Which of the following is/are growth hormone receptor antagonist(s) indicated in the treatment of Acromegaly?

1. Octreotide
2. Lanreotide
3. Pasireotide
4. Pegvisomant

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 4 only

Correct Answer: D) 4 only

Explanation: Pegvisomant is a growth hormone receptor antagonist. Octreotide, lanreotide and pasireotide are somatostatin receptor ligands that reduce growth hormone secretion but are not GH receptor antagonists.

Q58. Which of the following statements regarding Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndromes (APS) is/are correct?

1. APS Type 1 is more common than APS Type 2.
2. APS Type 1 is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition.
3. APS Type 2 is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition.

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

⚠️ Answer: The question as extracted does not have a correct combination among the displayed options.

Explanation: APS Type 1 is rare compared with APS Type 2 and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. APS Type 2 is generally associated with a polygenic/complex inheritance pattern, not a simple autosomal dominant pattern. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 as presented cannot both be treated as correct. The uploaded text appears to contain a question/options formatting issue.

Q59. Which one of the following drugs is not a secondary cause of weight gain?

A) Sulphonylureas
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Thyroxine
D) β-blockers

⚠️ Correct Answer: C) Thyroxine

Explanation: Sulphonylureas, glucocorticoids and beta-blockers can be associated with weight gain. Thyroxine, when appropriately used to treat hypothyroidism, is not considered a drug causing secondary weight gain.

Q60. Which one of the following is true for Teriparatide for treatment of osteoporosis?

A) It inhibits bone resorption by neutralizing effect of RANKL.
B) It is a fragment of human PTH and works by stimulating new bone formation.
C) It is administered subcutaneously once a year for 5 years.
D) Teriparatide should be combined with bisphosphonates for better efficacy.

Correct Answer: B) It is a fragment of human PTH and works by stimulating new bone formation.

Explanation: Teriparatide is a recombinant fragment of human parathyroid hormone (PTH 1–34). When administered intermittently, it stimulates new bone formation and is used in selected patients with osteoporosis. It is administered subcutaneously daily, not once yearly.

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper with Answers & Solutions – Part 4

Q61. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder, a lymphoma that follows organ transplantation, is associated with infection with which one of the following?

A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Capnocytophaga canimorsus
D) Histoplasma capsulatum

Correct Answer: A) Epstein-Barr virus

Explanation: Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) is strongly associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, particularly because immunosuppression after transplantation reduces immune control of EBV-infected B cells.

Q62. ‘Exanthem Subitum’ is caused due to infection of which of the following viruses?

1. Human herpesvirus 6
2. Hepatitis-B virus
3. Human herpesvirus 7
4. Hepatitis-C virus

A) 2 and 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 3
D) 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3

Explanation: Exanthem subitum, also known as roseola infantum, is primarily caused by HHV-6 and can also be caused by HHV-7. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q63. ‘Slapped-cheek’ rash is caused by infection with which one of the following viruses?

A) Zika virus
B) Human herpesvirus 6
C) Parvovirus B-19
D) Varicella zoster virus

Correct Answer: C) Parvovirus B-19

Explanation: The characteristic “slapped-cheek” rash is seen in erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), which is caused by Parvovirus B19.

Q64. The neuropsychiatric manifestations of the infections caused by which one of the following infectious agents presents as ‘Muttering Delirium’ or ‘Coma Vigil’ in which patients pick randomly at bed clothes or imaginary objects?

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Cardiobacterium hominis
C) Salmonella typhi
D) Campylobacter jejuni

Correct Answer: C) Salmonella typhi

Explanation: Muttering delirium (coma vigil) is a classical neuropsychiatric manifestation described in severe enteric/typhoid fever. The patient may appear delirious and pick at bedclothes or imaginary objects.

Q65. Necrotizing fasciitis caused by fungi such as mucoraceous moulds is classified as which one of the following types?

A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) Type 4

Correct Answer: D) Type 4

Explanation: Necrotizing fasciitis is classified into different types based on the causative organisms. Type IV necrotizing fasciitis is associated with fungal organisms, including mucoraceous moulds.

Q66. Infusion of which one of the following antibacterial agents may cause the ‘Red Man Syndrome’ characterized by rapid onset of erythematous rash and pruritus on the head, face, neck and upper trunk?

A) Vancomycin
B) Minocycline
C) Levofloxacin
D) Metronidazole

Correct Answer: A) Vancomycin

Explanation: Red Man Syndrome is an infusion-related reaction classically associated with rapid IV administration of vancomycin. It causes flushing, erythema and pruritus, especially over the upper body.

Q67. Which one of the following can be classically elicited in a patient of Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A) Auspitz sign
B) Koebner phenomenon
C) Gottron’s sign
D) Nikolsky sign

Correct Answer: D) Nikolsky sign

Explanation: Nikolsky sign is classically positive in Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS). Gentle pressure causes superficial separation of the epidermis because of toxin-mediated damage.

Q68. A 35-year-old female presents with generalized muscle rigidity, difficulty in swallowing and laryngeal spasms. She has developed trismus over the past 2 days. She gives a history of getting her ears pierced from a roadside jewellery seller 2 weeks ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A) Enteric fever
B) Pertussis
C) Diphtheria
D) Tetanus

Correct Answer: D) Tetanus

Explanation: Trismus (lockjaw), generalized muscle rigidity and spasms are characteristic of tetanus. The history of an unsterile piercing procedure provides a possible route for Clostridium tetani infection.

Q69. A 25-year-old male presents with urethral discharge and dysuria. Gram staining of the urethral discharge reveals gram-negative intracellular diplococci. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Chancroid
C) Syphilis
D) Lymphogranuloma venereum

Correct Answer: A) Gonorrhea

Explanation: Neisseria gonorrhoeae appears as gram-negative intracellular diplococci and commonly causes purulent urethral discharge and dysuria in males.

Q70. A 40-year-old male, upon returning from a beach holiday, noticed a serpiginous, intensely pruritic linear lesion over the dorsum of foot which moved slowly across the skin. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:

A) Cutaneous larva migrans
B) Anisakiasis
C) Cutaneous larva currens
D) Schistosomiasis

Correct Answer: A) Cutaneous larva migrans

Explanation: Cutaneous larva migrans produces an intensely itchy, serpiginous, migrating skin lesion. It is commonly acquired through contact with contaminated sand or soil, particularly in tropical or beach environments.

Q71. Consider the following statements regarding gas gangrene:

1. It is caused by clostridial species, e.g., Clostridium perfringens.
2. It is characterized by a foul-smelling, painful wound containing serosanguineous discharge and gas bubbles.
3. It requires an aerobic environment and affects sites which are richly supplied with blood.
4. Radical amputation carries a high risk of advancing the infection to healthy tissue and is strictly contraindicated.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2

Explanation: Gas gangrene is commonly caused by Clostridium perfringens and is associated with severe pain, foul-smelling discharge and gas formation in tissues. Clostridia thrive in anaerobic conditions, so statement 3 is incorrect. When necessary, aggressive surgical debridement/amputation is an important part of management, making statement 4 incorrect.

Q73. Which one of the following is the vector for Leishmania donovani, the causative organism of Visceral Leishmaniasis?

A) Tsetse fly
B) Sandfly
C) Anopheles mosquito
D) Reduviid bug

Correct Answer: B) Sandfly

Explanation: Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is transmitted by the bite of an infected female sandfly, particularly Phlebotomus species in the Indian subcontinent.

Q74. Casal’s Necklace is a characteristic erythema seen in deficiency of which one of the following vitamins?

A) Thiamin
B) Riboflavin
C) Niacin
D) Pyridoxine

Correct Answer: C) Niacin

Explanation: Casal’s necklace is a characteristic photosensitive dermatitis around the neck seen in niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency, which is associated with pellagra.

Q75. Wickham’s striae are typically seen in which one of the following diseases?

A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Psoriasis
C) Lichen planus
D) Pityriasis versicolor

Correct Answer: C) Lichen planus

Explanation: Wickham’s striae are fine, white, lacy lines seen on the surface of lesions in lichen planus. They are an important clinical clue for diagnosis.

Q77. Which one of the following refers to the appearance of punctate bleeding spots on scraping the surface of a skin lesion?

A) Punshi’s sign
B) Barnett’s sign
C) Gottron’s sign
D) Auspitz’s sign

Correct Answer: D) Auspitz’s sign

Explanation: Auspitz’s sign refers to the appearance of pinpoint bleeding after removal of the scales from a psoriatic lesion. It is classically associated with psoriasis.

Q78. Consider the following statements regarding Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS):

1. Type 1 CRPS may be precipitated by a traumatic event such as a fracture.
2. Type 1 CRPS is associated with peripheral nerve damage.
3. Type 2 CRPS is associated with peripheral nerve damage.
4. Budapest criteria are used for diagnosis of CRPS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: CRPS Type 1 can follow trauma or fracture without a definable nerve injury, whereas Type 2 is associated with a specific peripheral nerve injury. The Budapest criteria are used for diagnosis. Therefore, statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Q79. Which of the following classical disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs is/are considered safe for use during pregnancy?

1. Methotrexate
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Hydroxychloroquine
4. Leflunomide

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C) 2 and 3

Explanation: Sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered compatible with pregnancy in appropriate clinical use. Methotrexate and leflunomide are contraindicated because of their potential teratogenic effects.

Q80. Consider the following statements regarding Dual X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA):

1. DXA is used to measure bone mineral density.
2. It works on the principle that calcium in bone attenuates passage of X-rays through the tissue in proportion to the amount of mineral present.
3. Osteoporosis is defined to be present when the T-score lies between (-1.0) and below (+2.5).
4. Co-existing conditions, e.g., aortic calcification or degenerative disc disease can cause high bone mineral density even in the presence of osteoporosis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: DXA is used to measure bone mineral density (BMD). Degenerative changes and conditions such as aortic calcification can artificially increase the measured BMD. Statement 3 is incorrect because osteoporosis is generally defined by a T-score ≤ −2.5, not the range stated in the question. Therefore, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper with Answers & Solutions – Part 5

Q81. Finkelstein’s sign/test is done to diagnose which one of the following conditions?

A) Adhesive capsulitis
B) Golfer’s elbow
C) Trochanteric bursitis
D) de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

Correct Answer: D) de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

Explanation: Finkelstein’s test is a clinical test used for de Quervain’s tenosynovitis, involving inflammation of the first dorsal compartment tendons of the wrist.

Q82. Which of the following are ‘first-rank’ symptoms of acute schizophrenia?

1. Auditory hallucinations
2. Broadcasting of thoughts
3. Memory loss
4. Delusional perceptions

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

⚠️ Note: PDF extraction में इस question के options दूसरे text के साथ थोड़ा mix हैं, लेकिन listed symptoms के आधार पर 1, 2 and 4 first-rank psychotic symptoms से संबंधित हैं।

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4

📝 Explanation: Schneider’s first-rank symptoms में thought broadcasting और delusional perception शामिल हैं। Certain forms of auditory hallucinations भी first-rank symptoms में आती हैं। Memory loss first-rank symptom नहीं है।

Q83. A 44-year-old woman has fear of contamination leading to her repeated hand-washing. With regard to her management, consider the following statements:

1. Diagnosis is made on the basis of history.
2. The disorder responds to antidepressant drugs.
3. Patients may be subjected to cognitive behaviour therapy.
4. Admission to a psychiatry ward is mandatory.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 4 only
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 only

⚠️ Source note: उपलब्ध options में कोई combination सभी clinically correct statements को perfectly represent नहीं करता। Question में statements 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं, जबकि statement 4 गलत है।

Explanation: Contamination fear और repetitive hand-washing Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) के typical features हैं। Diagnosis clinical history से किया जाता है। OCD में antidepressants, विशेषकर SSRIs, उपयोगी हैं और CBT with exposure and response prevention effective treatment है। हर patient को psychiatric admission की जरूरत नहीं होती।

Q84. Consider the following statements with regard to point mutations:

1. If a purine is replaced by another purine, it is called ‘transition’.
2. If a purine is replaced by a pyrimidine, it is called ‘transversion’.
3. If a pyrimidine is replaced by another pyrimidine, it is called ‘transversion’.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: A transition is a substitution within the same base class: purine→purine or pyrimidine→pyrimidine. A transversion is substitution between a purine and pyrimidine. इसलिए statement 3 गलत है।

Q85. Which one of the following correctly denotes a flat, coloured lesion, <2 cm in diameter, not raised above the surface of the surrounding skin?

A) Macule
B) Patch
C) Papule
D) Nodule

Correct Answer: A) Macule

Explanation: A macule is a flat, circumscribed change in skin colour that is not elevated above the surrounding skin and is generally less than 1 cm in diameter. A larger flat lesion is termed a patch.

Q86. Which one of the following terms correctly denotes the mechanism and phenotypic changes that are not a result of variation in the underlying DNA sequence, but are caused by secondary modifications of DNA or histones in response to other heritable or environmental influences?

A) Pleiotropy
B) Epigenetics
C) Co-dominance
D) Epistasis

Correct Answer: B) Epigenetics

Explanation: Epigenetics refers to heritable or persistent changes in gene expression that occur without changing the underlying DNA sequence. DNA methylation and histone modifications are important epigenetic mechanisms.

Q87. ‘Latrodectism’, characterized by local pain and sweating, is caused by the bite of which one of the following animals?

A) Widow spider
B) King cobra
C) Lonomia caterpillar
D) Solenopsis ants

Correct Answer: A) Widow spider

Explanation: Latrodectism is the clinical syndrome caused by envenomation from Latrodectus (widow) spiders. It may produce pain, sweating, muscle spasms and autonomic symptoms.

Q88. A farmer was suspected of poisoning as he presented with bronchorrhoea, sweating and excessive salivation. Examination revealed bradycardia with bilateral miosis. Consider the following statements:

1. The symptoms represent Anticholinergic Syndrome.
2. Activation of Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) enzyme is the underlying mechanism.
3. Intravenous Atropine should be given for treatment.

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 3 only

Correct Answer: D) 3 only

Explanation: The combination of bronchorrhoea, salivation, sweating, bradycardia and miosis is characteristic of cholinergic poisoning, such as organophosphate poisoning. It is not anticholinergic syndrome, and acetylcholinesterase is inhibited rather than activated. Atropine is an important treatment.

Q89. Which of the following pairs of parasites and associated clinical manifestations are correct?

1. Ancylostoma duodenale — Anemia
2. Ascaris lumbricoides — Löffler Syndrome
3. Loa loa — Katayama Fever
4. Trichinella spiralis — Myositis

A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Hookworm infection can cause iron-deficiency anemia due to intestinal blood loss. Ascaris can cause Löffler syndrome during pulmonary migration. Trichinella spiralis causes myositis. Katayama fever is associated with schistosomiasis, not Loa loa.

Q90. Which of the following features are present in Locked-in Syndrome?

1. Cerebral cortex is intact.
2. Bilateral motor tracts are damaged.
3. Some response to verbal stimuli may be present.
4. Limb movement occurs in response to noxious stimuli.

A) 1 and 4
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2, 3 and 4
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: In locked-in syndrome, consciousness and cerebral cortex function are preserved, but major descending motor pathways are damaged, usually in the ventral pons. Patients can remain conscious and may communicate through vertical eye movements or blinking. Purposeful limb movement is absent.

Q91. A 26-year-old female complains of severe fatigue and myalgia. Examination reveals pallor and mild splenomegaly. Investigations show:

• Haemoglobin: 10 g/dL
• Peripheral smear: Microcytic hypochromic picture with anisocytosis
• Reticulocyte count: 5%
• Serum ferritin: 300 µg/L

What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A) Iron deficiency
B) Folic acid deficiency
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) β-Thalassemia

Correct Answer: D) β-Thalassemia

Explanation: The patient has microcytic hypochromic anemia, but serum ferritin is not low; it is elevated. The increased reticulocyte count and mild splenomegaly also support a haemolytic/hemoglobinopathy picture. Among the given options, β-thalassemia is the best answer.

Q92. Which of the following infectious agents are associated with the development of lymphoid malignancies?

1. HIV
2. Hepatitis B
3. Hepatitis C

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: HIV infection is associated with several lymphoid malignancies, while chronic hepatitis B and hepatitis C infections are also associated with increased risk of certain lymphoid neoplasms. Therefore, all three listed agents are relevant.

Q93. Consider the following statements regarding Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI):

1. TRALI usually manifests within 6 hours of transfusion.
2. Risk factors include high-titre anti-HLA class II antibodies in donor plasma.
3. TRALI due to cytokines or chemokines can occur even in the absence of HLA-mediated interactions.

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: TRALI is an acute pulmonary complication occurring during or within 6 hours of transfusion. Antibody-mediated mechanisms involving donor anti-HLA/HNA antibodies are recognized, while non-antibody mechanisms involving biologically active mediators can also contribute.

Q94. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.

List I – Drug

A. Aspirin
B. Enoxaparin
C. Dabigatran
D. Alteplase

List II – Mechanism of action

1. Thrombolytic
2. Antiplatelet
3. Anticoagulant
4. Direct thrombin inhibitor

A) 2, 3, 4, 1
B) 2, 4, 3, 1
C) 1, 3, 4, 2
D) 1, 4, 3, 2

Correct Answer: A) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation:

• Aspirin → Antiplatelet (2)
• Enoxaparin → Anticoagulant (3)
• Dabigatran → Direct thrombin inhibitor (4)
• Alteplase → Thrombolytic (1)

Therefore, the correct sequence is 2, 3, 4, 1.

Q95. A 3-year-old boy presents with barking cough and noisy breathing for 2 days. He has a history of running nose and fever. Examination reveals subcostal retractions and stridor. The most important step in management is:

A) Nebulized adrenaline
B) Nebulized salbutamol
C) Subcutaneous adrenaline
D) Intravenous hydrocortisone

Correct Answer: A) Nebulized adrenaline

Explanation: The clinical picture is suggestive of moderate/severe croup with stridor and respiratory distress. Nebulized adrenaline provides rapid reduction in upper-airway edema and is an important emergency treatment.

Q96. A 3-year-old boy presents with seizures. He has been receiving oral phenytoin since 6 months of age and has epileptic spasms despite therapy. Examination reveals hypopigmented lesions over the chest. MRI brain shows subependymal nodules. Which is the best anti-epileptic drug after stabilization?

A) Oral Phenytoin
B) Oral Zonisamide
C) Oral Topiramate
D) Oral Vigabatrin

Correct Answer: D) Oral Vigabatrin

Explanation: Hypopigmented lesions and subependymal nodules strongly suggest tuberous sclerosis complex. Epileptic spasms associated with tuberous sclerosis respond particularly well to vigabatrin, making it the preferred option among those listed.

Q97. A 10-year-old girl presents with high-grade fever, petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Ferritin is 1200 µg/L, fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL and triglycerides are 350 mg/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Aplastic anemia
B) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis
D) Acute promyelocytic leukemia

Correct Answer: C) Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis

Explanation: Fever, hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenias, high ferritin, hypertriglyceridemia and low fibrinogen are characteristic features of hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH).

Q98. A 5-year-old boy started on induction chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia develops acute abdominal pain on day 14 of chemotherapy. Examination reveals marked abdominal tenderness and Cullen’s sign is positive. Which chemotherapeutic drug can be implicated?

A) Vincristine
B) Daunorubicin
C) L-asparaginase
D) Methotrexate

Correct Answer: C) L-asparaginase

Explanation: L-asparaginase can cause acute pancreatitis, which may present with severe abdominal pain. It is a recognized important adverse effect during treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia.

Q99. A 5-year-old boy started on treatment for Burkitt lymphoma develops acute respiratory distress and decreased urine output. Investigations show potassium 6.5 mEq/L, calcium 6.7 mg/dL and creatinine 2 mg/dL. Which is the most important drug for emergency management?

A) Dexamethasone
B) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
C) Rasburicase
D) Folinic acid rescue

Correct Answer: C) Rasburicase

Explanation: The combination of hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, renal dysfunction after starting treatment for a highly proliferative lymphoma strongly suggests tumor lysis syndrome. Rasburicase rapidly reduces uric acid by converting it to allantoin and is used in high-risk tumor lysis syndrome.

Q100. Consider the following statements regarding human milk banking:

1. The banks accept voluntary milk donations from lactating women who are given nominal payments governed by law.
2. Donor mothers are screened via blood tests for HIV and Hepatitis B and C, similar to blood donation.
3. Pasteurized donor milk reduces the chances of NEC in preterm neonates.
4. Pasteurized donor milk is non-inferior to fresh mother’s own milk.

A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

⚠️ Source-based note: इस question में statement 4 की wording महत्वपूर्ण है। Available source text के अनुसार pasteurized donor milk का NEC risk कम करने में benefit supported है, लेकिन इसे fresh mother’s own milk का universally “non-inferior” substitute मानना अलग clinical claim है। इसलिए source wording के आधार पर answer सावधानी से लेना चाहिए।

Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Human milk banks में donors की infectious diseases के लिए screening की जाती है और donor milk को pasteurize किया जाता है। Preterm infants में donor human milk necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) के risk को कम करने में मदद करता है। Statement 1 में payment वाला claim और statement 4 में non-inferiority वाला claim इस question के context में सही नहीं माने गए हैं.

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper with Answers & Solutions – Part 6

Q101. A term neonate weighing 2 kg, delivered to a primigravida mother through vaginal route and through clear liquor, is found having gasping respiratory efforts after performing the initial steps in the delivery room. The next step in resuscitation is:

A) Initiate positive pressure ventilation with bag and mask using 30% oxygen
B) Intubate and initiate positive pressure ventilation using 30% oxygen
C) Initiate positive pressure ventilation with bag and mask using room air
D) Intubate and initiate positive pressure ventilation using room air

Correct Answer: C) Initiate positive pressure ventilation with bag and mask using room air

Explanation: A term neonate who is gasping after initial steps requires immediate positive-pressure ventilation (PPV). For a term neonate, PPV is initially started with room air (21% oxygen), with oxygen concentration adjusted according to response and saturation.

Q102. A newborn delivered at 37 weeks gestation and birth weight 2.7 kg presents at 12 hours of life with bilious vomiting. Examination reveals abdominal distention. Abdominal radiograph shows multiple air-fluid levels with absent distal gas pattern. The most likely etiology is:

A) Malrotation leading to volvulus
B) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C) Jejunal-ileal atresia
D) Necrotizing enterocolitis

Correct Answer: C) Jejunal-ileal atresia

Explanation: Early bilious vomiting, abdominal distension and multiple air-fluid levels with absence of distal gas suggest an intestinal obstruction. Among the given options, jejunal-ileal atresia is the best fit. Pyloric stenosis typically causes non-bilious vomiting.

Q103. Consider the following statements regarding the management of trachea-esophageal fistula in neonates:

1. The baby should be nursed in prone position.
2. The neonate should be kept nil per orally and started on intravenous fluids.
3. The neonate needs continuous oral suction using a slow suction device.
4. Surgery should be planned once the neonate attains 2.5 kg weight.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Initial management of oesophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula includes nil per oral, IV fluids, positioning to reduce aspiration risk and continuous suction of pooled secretions. Definitive surgery is planned after stabilization; waiting specifically for a weight of 2.5 kg is not the standard criterion.

Q104. An apparently well male neonate is brought on day 4 of life because of pink staining of his diapers. There is no bleeding from the urethra or rectum and urine dipstick test for RBCs is negative. The most likely etiology is:

A) Porphyria
B) Urate crystals in urine
C) Hemoglobinuria
D) Hematuria

Correct Answer: B) Urate crystals in urine

Explanation: Brick-red or pink staining of diapers during the first days of life is commonly due to deposition of uric acid/urate crystals in concentrated neonatal urine. A negative urine RBC dipstick supports that the discoloration is not due to hematuria.

Q105. A preterm neonate is brought to the emergency and the body temperature is noted to be 32°C. Which one of the following metabolic complications is unlikely?

A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Hypoxemia

Correct Answer: A) Metabolic alkalosis

Explanation: Neonatal hypothermia can be associated with hypoglycemia, hypoxemia and increased risk of hyperbilirubinemia. Metabolic alkalosis is not a typical metabolic complication of neonatal hypothermia.

Q106. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the outpatient department with complaints of developmental delay. He can feed himself a biscuit, can draw a line, can climb steps, and only says bisyllables. Which one of the following developmental screening tools is not suitable for him?

A) Phatak’s Baroda Screening Test
B) Ages and Stages Questionnaire
C) Trivandrum Development Screening Chart
D) Denver II

Correct Answer: A) Phatak’s Baroda Screening Test

Explanation: The Phatak’s Baroda Screening Test is designed for younger children and does not cover the developmental age range appropriate for a 3-year-old as well as the other listed screening tools.

Q107. An 8-year-old girl is provided a few cubes and asked to create the structure shown in the image. If she can create Structure A but cannot make Structure B, her developmental quotient (DQ) in the fine-motor domain is:

⚠️ Image-based question — skipped.

📝 Reason: The structures required to calculate the developmental age are shown as an image, which is not available in the extracted text. इसलिए बिना image देखे numerical answer देना सही नहीं होगा.

Q108. A 2-year-old boy develops a dusky appearance and lethargy after being prescribed a medicine for vomiting. He has normal-sized reactive pupils, GCS 9 and shallow breathing with cyanosis. ABG shows PaO₂ 80 mmHg but SpO₂ 60%. Which drug may be implicated?

A) Domperidone
B) Granisetron
C) Aprepitant
D) Metoclopramide

⚠️ Source text is insufficient to confidently establish the intended answer.

Explanation: The markedly low pulse oximetry despite a relatively preserved PaO₂ suggests a possible dyshemoglobinemia, but the extracted source does not provide enough information to safely determine the intended drug from these options. इसलिए इस question को post में answer के साथ डालना बेहतर नहीं है.

Q109. A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency in an unconscious state with shallow breathing and increasing drowsiness. He has dry mouth, cold extremities, is limp and has pinpoint pupils. Which antidote should be administered?

A) Flumazenil
B) Adrenaline
C) Pralidoxime
D) Naloxone

Correct Answer: D) Naloxone

Explanation: Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression and unconsciousness strongly suggest opioid poisoning. Naloxone is the opioid antagonist used for emergency reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression.

Q110. A neonate is noted to have bilious vomiting at 6 hours of life with abdominal distention. An X-ray is ordered. The most likely diagnosis is:

⚠️ Image-based question — skipped.

Reason: The radiograph required to identify the diagnosis is not available in the extracted text.

Q111. A 6-year-old boy has involuntary, non-rhythmic, jerky movements of the upper limbs and snorting sounds for the past 12 months. MRI brain and EEG are normal. He has stopped attending school because of teasing. The ideal therapy would be a trial of:

A) Oral Clonidine
B) Oral Methylphenidate
C) Oral Benzodiazepines
D) Oral Olanzapine

Correct Answer: A) Oral Clonidine

Explanation: The history of motor and vocal tics for more than one year is suggestive of a chronic tic disorder/Tourette spectrum disorder. Clonidine can be used for tic suppression, particularly when symptoms are causing functional or social difficulties.

Q112. A 4-year-old unimmunized HIV-positive child on antiretroviral therapy has a CD4 count of 750/mm³ with no history of opportunistic infections. Which statements are applicable?

1. Recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine can be safely administered.
2. MMR vaccine is always contraindicated.
3. BCG may be administered if chest radiograph is normal.
4. IPV is preferred over OPV.

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 4

Correct Answer: C) 1 and 4

Explanation: In an HIV-positive child with adequate immune function, recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine can be given. IPV is preferred because OPV is a live vaccine. MMR is not “always” contraindicated, while BCG is generally avoided in HIV infection.

Q113. As per the National Immunization Schedule, PCV (Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine) is offered at:

A) 6 weeks, 10 weeks and 14 weeks
B) 6 weeks and 14 weeks
C) 6 weeks, 10 weeks and 9 months
D) 6 weeks, 14 weeks, 9 months

Correct Answer: D) 6 weeks, 14 weeks, 9 months

Explanation: Under the National Immunization Schedule, PCV is given as two primary doses at 6 and 14 weeks, followed by a booster dose at 9 months.

Q114. Which one of the following vaccines is an exception to the principle that at least 4 weeks’ interval is needed between two doses of the same vaccine?

A) Rabies vaccine
B) HPV vaccine
C) Varicella vaccine
D) Hepatitis B vaccine

Correct Answer: A) Rabies vaccine

Explanation: Rabies post-exposure vaccination follows a specific schedule with doses given at shorter intervals, including days 0, 3, 7 and 14 in the commonly used schedule. Hence, it is an exception to the general 4-week principle.

Q115. Administration of immunoglobulins interferes with the response to live vaccines, except:

A) Measles vaccine
B) Rubella vaccine
C) Oral typhoid vaccine
D) Mumps vaccine

Correct Answer: C) Oral typhoid vaccine

Explanation: Passive antibodies can interfere with antibody-containing live viral vaccines, particularly measles, mumps and rubella. The oral typhoid vaccine is a live bacterial vaccine and is not affected in the same way by circulating antibodies.

Q116. A 14-year-old boy is reported for repeated aggressive activities including beating up children in the neighbourhood. He also snorts heroin sometimes. He will be categorized legally as suffering from:

A) Oppositional defiant disorder
B) Conduct disorder
C) Juvenile delinquency
D) Drug addiction

Correct Answer: B) Conduct disorder

Explanation: Repeated aggressive and antisocial behaviour, such as assaulting others, is characteristic of conduct disorder in children and adolescents. Substance use may coexist but does not replace the primary behavioural diagnosis described here.

Q117. As per the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme, the first-line agent for treatment of Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) is:

A) Amphotericin B, liposomal, IV, single dose
B) Sodium stibogluconate, IV, 30-day regimen
C) Oral Miltefosine, 28-day regimen
D) Amphotericin B deoxycholate, IV, 30 doses

Correct Answer: A) Amphotericin B, liposomal, IV, single dose

Explanation: The recommended first-line treatment for visceral leishmaniasis in the Indian programme is liposomal amphotericin B, administered intravenously according to the recommended single-dose regimen.

Q118. Which one of the following illnesses is not covered under the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram?

A) Childhood cancer
B) Down syndrome
C) Goitre
D) Rheumatic heart disease

⚠️ Source-based note: Question और options source में साफ़ हैं, लेकिन uploaded material में answer key उपलब्ध नहीं है। इसलिए इस question के लिए बिना external verification के definitive answer नहीं जोड़ रहा हूँ.

Q119. A 2-year-old child is brought with complaints of not growing well. He weighs 8.1 kg, height is 80 cm, MUAC is 11.5 cm and both palms are white. There is no edema of the feet. As per IMNCI, he will be classified as:

A) No acute malnutrition and anemia
B) No acute malnutrition and severe anemia
C) Moderate acute malnutrition and anemia
D) Moderate acute malnutrition and severe anemia

Correct Answer: D) Moderate acute malnutrition and severe anemia

Explanation: A MUAC of 11.5 cm falls in the range for moderate acute malnutrition in the IMNCI classification. Pallor of both palms indicates severe anemia. Therefore, the appropriate classification is moderate acute malnutrition with severe anemia.

Q120. A 2-year-old previously unimmunized girl presents with poor feeding and fever for 6 days. On day 4 of fever, a maculopapular reddish rash started from the face and spread over the neck, chest, arms and trunk. She has extensive mouth ulcers and MUAC is 11 cm without edema. As per IMNCI, she will be classified as:

A) Measles with eye or mouth complications
B) Measles
C) Severe complicated measles
D) Measles with severe acute malnutrition

Correct Answer: A) Measles with eye or mouth complications

Explanation: The rash pattern is characteristic of measles, and the presence of extensive mouth ulcers places the child in the category of measles with mouth complications.

Question Paper में किस तरह के प्रश्न हैं?

• UPSC CMS 2026 Paper-I में General Medicine और Pediatrics से जुड़े विभिन्न विषयों पर objective-type questions दिए गए हैं।
• प्रश्नपत्र में शुरुआत में hypertension, hypertensive emergency, heart failure और Takotsubo cardiomyopathy जैसे topics से संबंधित questions हैं।
• आगे paper में gastroenterology, liver disease, irritable bowel syndrome, coeliac disease, hepatitis C और Whipple’s disease जैसे medical topics से जुड़े questions भी शामिल हैं।
• Pediatrics section में vaccination, National Immunization Schedule, Kala-azar, Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram, IMNCI classification और child health से जुड़े questions भी पूछे गए हैं। इसलिए CMS की तैयारी कर रहे उम्मीदवारों के लिए यह question paper अपनी तैयारी और exam pattern को समझने के लिए उपयोगी है।

UPSC CMS Question Paper 2026 कैसे Download करें?

UPSC CMS 2026 Paper-I Question Paper PDF डाउनलोड करने के लिए नीचे दिए गए steps follow करें:

1. ऊपर दिए गए Official PDF Download लिंक पर क्लिक करें।
2. UPSC की PDF खुलेगी।
3. PDF को browser में पढ़ सकते हैं या Download option पर क्लिक करके अपने device में save कर सकते हैं।
4. Question Paper को अपनी CMS preparation और practice के लिए इस्तेमाल करें।

UPSC CMS 2026 Paper-I में Negative Marking

इस question paper में गलत उत्तर के लिए negative marking का प्रावधान दिया गया है। प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर उस प्रश्न के निर्धारित अंकों का 1/3 हिस्सा काटा जाएगा। यदि उम्मीदवार किसी प्रश्न के लिए एक से अधिक विकल्प mark करता है, तो उसे भी गलत उत्तर माना जाएगा और penalty लागू होगी। बिना उत्तर वाला प्रश्न छोड़ने पर कोई penalty नहीं है।

UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper: क्यों करें Practice?

CMS Question Paper को practice करने से उम्मीदवार:

• प्रश्नों के स्तर को समझ सकते हैं।
• General Medicine और Pediatrics के important topics की पहचान कर सकते हैं।
• Objective questions को निर्धारित समय में हल करने की practice कर सकते हैं।
• Negative marking को ध्यान में रखते हुए सही attempt strategy बना सकते हैं।
• अपनी तैयारी में कमजोर topics को identify कर सकते हैं।

FAQs – UPSC CMS 2026 Question Paper PDF

Related Post

• 8 August 2026 Current Affairs: आज के ये Questions याद कर लो, Exam में काम आएंगे
• RCFL Management Trainee Recruitment 2026: Apply Online for 94 Posts
• AAI Junior Executive & Manager Recruitment 2026: Apply Online for 389 Posts
• ICSI Executive Assistant Recruitment 2026: Apply Online for 20 Posts
• 7 अगस्त 2026 Current Affairs Quiz: कितनी है आपकी तैयारी? जानें अपना Score